21. If a patient has a minute ventilation of 9.6 L/min and a ventilator frequency of 10 breaths/min, what is the patient’s tidal volume?
A. 9.6L
B. 96.0 L
C. 96.0 ml
D. 960 ml
22. If a patient weighing 140 lbs has a tidal volume of 400 and a ventilatory frequency of 14 breaths/minute what is the patient’s minute ventilation?
A. 5.6 L
B. 560 ml
C. 56.0 L
D. 4.0 L
23. If a patient’s PaO2 is 540 mmHg and PAO2 is calculated to be 642 mmHg, what is the alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference? The patient is on 100% FiO2.
A. 102 mmHg
B. 540 mmHg
C. 320 mmHg
D. 265 mmHg
24. The RRT is asked to evaluate the results of a diagnostic sleep study. Which of the following guidelines would the RRT use to determine the existence of sleep apnea?
A. Three or more apneic episodes per hour, each lasting at least 6 seconds
B. Five or more apneic episodes per hour, each lasting at least 10 seconds
C. Five or more apneic episodes per hour, each lasting at least 3 seconds
D. Eight or more apneic episodes per hour, each lasting at least 8 seconds
25.Which of the following devices should be used to effectively deliver a 70% helium/ 30% oxygen mixture to a patient?
A. Simple mask
B. Oxygen hood
C. Nasal cannula
D. Nonrebreathing mask
26. The spontaneous minute ventilation and respiratory rate of a mechanically ventilated patient are 6.2 L/in and 30/min. Calculate the average spontaneous tidal volume and the RSBI. Does the calculated RSBI indicate a successful weaning outcome?
A. Spontaneous Vt = .207 L; RSBI = 90/breaths/min/L; Yes
B. Spontaneous Vt = .207 L; RSBI = 145 breaths/min/L; No
C. Spontaneous Vt = .319 L; RSBI = 90 breaths/min/L; Yes
D. Spontaneous Vt = .319; RSBI = 137 breaths/min/L; No
27. When a volume-limited ventilator is used, the peak airway pressure is directly related to the:
A. Patient’s airway resistance
B. Patient’s lung compliance
C. Respiratory rate
D. FiO2
28. When a volume-limited ventilator is used, the plateau (lung) pressure is directly related to the:
A. Patient’s airway resistance
B. Patient’s lung compliance
C. Respiratory rate
D. FiO2
29. The respiratory therapist is participating in the resuscitation of a patient. After 5 minutes of CPR, the ECG shows ventricular fibrillation. Attempted defibrillation with 200 joules has been ineffective. The therapist’s next recommendation should be to:
A. Perform a precordial thump.
B. Perform endotracheal intubation.
C. Implement cardioversion with 300 joules.
D. Implement defibrillation with 300 joules.
30. A patient being mechanically ventilated is intubated with an 8mm endotracheal tube. While suctioning the patient with a 12 Fr catheter after pre-oxygenation, the respiratory therapist notes the patient shows bradycardia, and the oxygen saturation decreases. The therapist should recommend changing to a:
A. 10 mm catheter.
B. Closed-suction system.
C. 14 Fr whistle-tip catheter.
D. Suctioning frequency of q4h.
31. While using continuous apnea monitoring for infants, the low heart rate should be set to alarm if the heart rate decreases to _____ and an apneic period of _____ seconds occurs.
A. 80, 5 subglottic
B. 80, 10
C. 130, 30
D. 100, 20
32. You just finished analyzing an arterial blood sample in the laboratory and the co-oximeter shows total hemoglobin of 15 grams/100ml with a carboxyhemoglobin of 2 grams and methemoglobin of 2 grams. The amount of functional hemoglobin in this sample would be _____ grams.
A. 15
B. 13
C. 11
D. 9
33. Given the following results: PB = 760 mmHg, FiO2 = 70%, and PaCO2 = 40 mmHg. What is the calculated alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?
A. 449 mmHg
B. 370 mmHg
C. 100 mmHg
D. 268 mmHg
34. After obtaining an arterial blood example from a patient’s artery, the respiratory therapist notes a purple subcutaneous wheal developing at the puncture site. Which of the following would be the FIRST action to take?
A. Perform an Allen’s test.
B. Immediately notify the nurse.
C. Apply pressure to the puncture site.
D. Recommend subcutaneous epinephrine at the site.
35. You are monitoring a mechanically ventilated patient with ARDS in the SIMV mode. At 7:00 am the following is noted; PIP of 30 cmH2O and Plateau pressure of 25 cmH2O. At your next check, you note that the PIP is now 42 cmH2O and Plateau is 30 cmH2O. What action would you recommend?
A. Change to pressure control mode
B. Suction the patient’s airway
C. Continue SIMV mode and reduce the tidal volume
D. Recommend that a bronchodilator be administered
36. A 34 week gestational age infant is receiving mechanical ventilation and the chest is being transilluminated. The transillumination device produces a small halo appearance at the point of contact with the skin. This indicates which of the following?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumomediastinum
C. Pneumopericardium
D. Normal lung appearance
37. A patient with an oral endotracheal tube is being suctioned using 80 mm Hg suction pressure. As suction is applied to the catheter, secretions enter the catheter, but do not advance more than 3cm. The respiratory therapist should:
A. Increase suction pressure.
B. Instill saline down the suction catheter.
C. Instruct the patient to cough during suctioning.
D. Apply intermittent suction pressure to the catheter.
38. It is determined that a patient has a tidal volume of 750 ml and a respiratory rate of 16. What is the patient’s minute ventilation?
A. 12 L
B. 11.2 L
C. 9.75 L
D. 7.5 L
39. The respiratory therapist is suctioning a mechanically ventilated patient q4h with a 12 Fr suction catheter. The patient has a 7.0 mm oral endotracheal tube in place. The amount of secretions seems to be increasing. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
A. Suction more frequently.
B. Use a Coude suction catheter.
C. Use a size 14 Fr suction catheter.
D. Increase the suction pressure to-150mm Hg.
40. During the initial assessment of a patient with a closed-head injury, the patient only opens his eyes in response to pain. On a follow-up examination, the patient opens his eyes to verbal commands. These observations indicate which of the following?
A. The level of consciousness is increased.
B. Intracranial pressure has increased.
C. Cerebral perfusion has decreased.
D. Seizure activity is increased.
41. Increased dynamic compliance and stable static compliance would indicate:
A. A problem in the airway
B. Stiff lung tissue due to atelectasis
C. A pneumothorax
D. Patient has developed pulmonary edema
42. A mechanically ventilated patient has previously had both increased peak and plateau pressures. The next ventilator check reveals a decrease in both peak and plateau pressures. What does this indicate about the patient’s lung characteristics?
A. Dynamic and static compliance have improved
B. Dynamic and static compliance have worsened
C. Only dynamic compliance has improved
D. Only static lung compliance has improved
43. The respiratory therapist performs an assessment prior to initiating aerosol and chest physiotherapy. During the interview, the patient states, “I seem to breath fast and lift my shoulders a lot, but I feel like I am getting enough air. I sleep through the night and only use one pillow.” The therapist can conclude that the patient likely has:
A. Dyspnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Increased work of breathing
D. A decreased level of consciousness
44. A COPD patient is being cared for via home health visits. A RCP visits the patient and determines that the patient is losing muscle mass and weight. Which of the following recommendations should the RCP make to this patient to prevent further muscle wasting?
A. Eat several small meals a day
B. Eat only when you feel hungry
C. Wear your nasal cannula at 2 lpm while you eat
D. Lift heavy weights at the gym
45. A RCP is assessing a patient with chronic bronchitis. The patient states that his secretions are thick and pale yellow in color. The RCP would chart this finding as:
A. Mucoid
B. Frothy
C. Purulent
D. Mucopurulent
46. A RCP is called to assess a patient with chest pain. Auscultation reveals a pleural friction rub. The patient has been hospitalized for 2 days and has shown no improvement. The RCP should consider which of the following as possible diagnosis for this patient?
A. The patient has developed pleurisy
B. The patient is experiencing angina pectoris
C. The patient has broken ribs
D. The patient has developed an area of atelectasis
47. A loud, continuous, high-pitched sound heard during auscultation of the larynx and trachea is called:
A. Rhonchi
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Crackles
48. A near-drowning patient is brought to the ER. The RCP is asked to assist in assessing the patient for immediate care. A neurological assessment is performed. It is determined that during pain stimulus the patient opens his eyes and exhibits limb extension to painful stimuli. The patient responds with inappropriate word usage. According to this information, what Glasgow coma scale score should be assigned to the patient?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 12
D. 7
49. When an oropharyngeal suction device becomes obstructed while suctioning vomitus from a patient’s mouth, the respiratory therapist should:
A. Increase the vacuum pressure.
B. Change to a suction catheter.
C. Clear the device of particulate matter.
D. Check the wall outlet vacuum pressure.
50. An afebrile patient who has been ventilated with a volume ventilator with a heat moisture exchanger for the past 24 hours is having progressive increases in peak inspiratory pressure. After suctioning the trachea and determining there is no pathological reason for the increased pressure, the respiratory therapist should do which of the following?
A. Reduce the tidal volume.
B. Change the flow pattern of the ventilator.
C. Replace the heat moisture exchanger.
D. Increase the heat moisture exchanger temperature.
